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The mean value theorem

This theorem is a direct consequence of Rolle's theorem.

Let be \(f(x)\) a continuous function on an interval \([a,b]\), and derivable on \(]a,b[\).


$$ f \ continuous \ on \ [a,b] \ and \ derivable \ on \ ]a,b[ \ \Longrightarrow \ \exists c \in \hspace{0.05em} ]a, b[, \ f'(c) = \frac{ f(b) - f(a)}{b-a}$$

The lean value theorem

Demonstration

Let be \(f(x)\) a continuous function on an interval \([a,b]\), and derivable on \(]a,b[\).

Let it be as well \( c \in [a,b] \) a real number, the tangent \(T_c(x)\) to the curve of \(f\) at point \(c\), and also an affine function \(g(x)\) connecting two points \(A\) and \(B\).

The mean value theorem - demo

Points \(A, B, C\) are the points of the curve of \(f\) corresponding to the abscissae \(a, b, c\).


Let us consider a function \(\Phi\) also defined on \([a,b]\) such as:

$$\Phi(x) = f(x) - g(x) \qquad (\Phi) $$

Since the slope between \(a\) and any point in \(x \in [a, b]\) is worth:

$$ \forall x \in [a,b], \ \frac{g(x) - g(a)}{x-a} = \frac{ g(b) - g(a)}{b-a} $$

But,

$$ \Biggl \{ \begin{align*} f(a) = g(a) \\ f(b) = g(b) \end{align*} $$

So,

$$ \frac{g(x) - f(a)}{x-a} = \frac{ f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} $$
$$ g(x) = f(a) + \frac{ f(b) - f(a)}{b-a}(x-a) \qquad (g) $$

Thus, injecting \((g)\) in \((\Phi)\),

$$\Phi(x) = f(x) - f(a) - \frac{ f(b) - f(a)}{b-a}(x-a) \qquad (\Phi^*) $$

Functions \( f, g \) being derivable on \( ]a, b[ \), they are derivable on this same interval, it will be the same for \(\Phi\).

Et comme :

$$\Phi(a) = \Phi(b) = 0 $$

Rolle's theorem may therefore apply.

Rolle's theorem tells us that:

For any a continuous function \(f(x)\) on an interval \([a,b]\), and derivable on \(]a,b[\):

$$ f(a) = f(b) \Longrightarrow \ \exists c \in \hspace{0.05em} ]a, b[, \ f'(c) = 0 $$
Rolle's theorem

In our case,

$$ \Phi(a) = \Phi(b) \ \Longrightarrow \ \exists c \in \hspace{0.05em} ]a, b[, \ \Phi'(c) = 0 \qquad(1) $$

And, by applying the derivative of \((\Phi^*)\) we obtain \(\Phi'\):

$$ \Phi'(x) = f'(x) - \frac{ f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} \qquad(\Phi ') $$

And thanks to both results \((1)\) and \((\Phi ')\), we obtain this:

$$ \Phi'(c) = 0 \Longrightarrow f'(c) - \frac{ f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} = 0 $$

Thus,

$$\exists c \in \hspace{0.05em} ]a, b[, \ f'(c) = \frac{ f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} $$

And as a result,

$$ f \ continuous \ on \ [a,b] \ and \ derivable \ on \ ]a,b[ \ \Longrightarrow \ \exists c \in \hspace{0.05em} ]a, b[, \ f'(c) = \frac{ f(b) - f(a)}{b-a}$$

The lean value theorem
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